BCOR-012 Final Exam Part 2

In Meiosis, a _____ parent cell divides to form _____ daughter cells

When do homologous chromosomes line up in a pairwise fashion on the equatorial plate during meiosis?

Which sequence provides a model for describing the process of meiosis

Sister chromatids present at metaphase 2 might not be genetically identical to each other because ______

Independent assortment results in gametes containing _____

Two genes coding for proteins involved in glycolysis reside on the same chromosome. Can these genes assort independently?

If cells with the genotype SsYyRr undergo meiosis, how many types of gametes will be produced? Assume that the genes are on different chromosomes.

In a pedigree analysis, a shaded circle is used to represent a _____ and a partially shaded circle is used to represent an _____

A human disease is observed to follow an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance. If a boy diagnosed with the disease has a father who does not have the disease, what can be deduced about the boy's mother?

Tongue-rolling is a human trait that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. A girl with the tongue-rolling trait has two brothers who do not have this trait. What is true of the children's parents?

A man affected by a recessive trait on the X chromosome marries a woman who neither shows the trait nor is a carrier. Which outcome is possible if they have two children-a son and a daughter?

In what way did T. H. Morgan's fruit fly data not conform to Mendel's law of independent assortment?

What factor determines how often two alleles for a gene will recombine?

The gene for body color and wing shape reside on the same chromosome in fruit flies. After crossing female flies having gray bodies and normal wings with male flies having black bodies and vestigial wings, Morgan observed that some of the F1 flies had nonparental phenotypes (gray bodies with vestigial wings, or black bodies with normal wings). What accounts for this?

What fraction of offspring of the cross Aa × Aa is homozygous for the dominant allele?

What fraction of the offspring of the cross AaBb × AaBb would show the dominant phenotypes for both genes?

Suppose unattached earlobes are a dominant trait. Phil and Maggie both have unattached earlobes but their daughter, Celia, does not. If Phil and Maggie have a second child, what is the probability that he or she will have attached earlobes?

The cross AaBb × AaBb is an example of a _____ cross; the results of such crosses led Mendel to propose what we now call the law of _____

In a test cross, peas of an unknown genotype are crossed with peas of a known genotype. In this example, smooth peas are the unknown and wrinkled peas are the known (rr). If half of the offspring from that cross are smooth and half are wrinkled, what is the genotype of the unknown plant?

The 9:3:3:1 ratio is obtained _____

_____ is the term for when heterozygous offspring have superior fitness than their homozygous parents

Codominance

Incomplete dominance

A woman of blood group A has a child with a man of blood group B. The child's blood is type O. What are the genotypes of the parents?

Coat color in rabbits involves the effects of multiple gene interactions. If a rabbit has two recessive alleles (cc) for coat color, it is always albino no matter what the genotype of other genes involved in coat color. This is an example of _____

The fact that a trait such as height in humans varies over a wide range of values is due to _____

When a true-breeding red flower is crossed with a white flower, and all the F1 flowers are pink, this is due to _____

Which statement about linkage of genes is false?

True statements about linkage of genes

In many animals, including humans, sex is determined by a single _____, or by a pair of them. Both males and females have two copies of each of the rest of the chromosomes, which are called _____

In sex-linked inheritance of a recessive gene, if a normal male and a heterozygous female carrier mated, all _____

Wild-type fruit flies have red eyes. A white-eyed female fly is crossed with a red-eyed male fly. All of the females from the cross are red-eyed and all of the males are white-eyed. What type of inheritance pattern is this?

Genes located on mitochondrial DNA are usually inherited ______

Lateral gene transfer between individuals of a species _____

In order for natural selection to change a trait within a population, what must be true about the trait?

A study showed that the mortality risk for human babies goes up as birth weight decreases below the average. Another study shows an increase in mortality risk as birth weight increases above the average. What can be said about human birth weight?

Each of the following features of a population, with the exception of one, may prevent the population from maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Which of the following is the exception?

What is the sum of frequencies of all alleles for any given gene in a population?

Using the Hardy-Weinberg equations, determine the frequency of a homozygous recessive genotype (q2) if the frequency of the dominant allele is p = 0.8. Assume that there are only two types of alleles for this gene in the population.

In explaining what we now call evolution, Darwin often used the phrase "descent with modification." Fundamental to this idea is that _____

Mistakes in the replication of DNA _____

Which phenomenon is not an evolutionary mechanism?

Which evolutionary process adapts populations to their environments?

The frequency of one allele for a given gene locus with two alleles (A at frequency p and a at frequency q) in a population is known. Assume Hardy-Weinberg conditions hold true. Which statement is false?

The frequency of an allele in a population of manatees is 0.15. If the population is at Hardy-Weinberg for this locus, what number of 600 individuals should be homozygous for this allele?

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not applicable under which condition?

The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is applicable under which conditions?

You discover a population of seals and find it to be at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium with respect to the A locus. Suppose that there are two alleles at this locus and the frequency of one of those alleles (the a-6 allele) is 0.4. Of the individuals that carry at least one a-6 allele, what percent are homozygotes?

Which statement about selection is true?

______ selection operates if individuals within a population with the smallest and largest body sizes have fewer offspring than those of average body size

Suppose the size of a population of mustard plants is 6,000. According to genetic drift theory, what is the probability that a newly-arisen mutation will become fixed in this population?

Which statement about synonymous mutations is true?

A neutral mutation _____

A gene involved in neural development shows three times as many synonymous site substitutions than nonsynonymous ones. A likely explanation is that this gene _____

Which observation would most seriously challenge the hypothesis that most noncoding DNA is slightly deleterious?

Which statement about he genomes of organisms is false?

Sexual recombination ______

Gene families are groups of ______ genes that arose by _____ & _____

Which of the following statements is true of the parsimony method for reconstructing phylogeny?

Which of the following types of data could be compared during the construction of a phylogenetic tree?

In the experiment described in the tutorial, why did the investigators add a mutagen to the culture medium?

Why did the investigators keep the identities of each virus generation a secret from the other researchers developing the phylogenetic tree?

Of the following scenarios, which would provide the best analogy for describing the process of constructing a phylogenetic tree using genetic information?

A student comments that constructing phylogenetic trees must be possible for organisms with many shared characteristics such as camels and horses, but not possible for organisms with no obvious shared characteristics such as oak trees and sharks. Which statement provides the best evaluation of the student's thinking?

The _____ of a phylogenetic tree represents the common ancestor, the _____ represent events where lineages diverged, and the _____ axis represents time. Assume that the tree is oriented as described in the textbook.

A _____ is any group of organisms we name, while a _____ is any _____ that consists of all the evolutionary descendants of a common ancestor

Which statements about traits is true?

The bones in the wings of birds and bats are _____ because they derived from a _____ ancestor, while the wings are _____ traits

A sea squirt is thought to be more closely related to vertebrates than once thought because _____

Three character sets are being considered for inclusion in a phylogenetic analysis of lizards. The first (A) is fossil data on lizards from 10 to 20 million years ago. The second (B) is on a variety of mating behaviors that have been shown to be learned. The third (C) is from a few nuclear genes that have variable rates of evolution. Which is least likely useful to the analysis of phylogenetic relationships, and why?

The best way to assess the accuracy of methods to reconstruct phylogenetic history is to _____

Phylogenetic analyses of opsin pigments have allowed scientists to infer that ancestral archosaurs _____

Suppose that mice and humans differ by 30 substitutions in their globin genes, and rats and mice differ by five substitutions. On the basis of other evidence, we know that the ancestor to humans and mice lived 84 million years ago. Assuming the molecular clock is operating, rats and mice split from each other _____ million years ago

A molecular clock assumes that the genes used _____

The studies of self-incompatible (outcrossing) species of Leptosiphon illustrate _____

In the classification system devised by Linnaeus, the names of _____ of plants end with the suffix _____, while those of animals end with _____

Which statements about biological classification is true?

A taxon that contains organisms that do not share a common ancestor is referred to as _____

What did the simulation demonstrate about the rate at which geographically isolated subsets of a population become reproductively incompatible?

What factor contributes to genetic divergence between two geographically isolated populations?

Which of the following is a key element of the Dobzhansky-Muller model of speciation, in which two lineages diverge from a single lineage?

What is allopatric speciation?

Why is genetic drift often a factor influencing speciation after a founder event?

A biologist has identified two groups of salamanders with very similar physical features on opposite banks of a river. Which investigative approach would help determine whether the groups are the result of allopatric speciation?

A student states that genetic drift was responsible for genetic divergence of picture-winged Drosophila on the Hawaiian Islands, which led to speciation. Another student states that natural selection was responsible. Evaluate these two statements based on information presented about these flies in the tutorial

What is polyploidy?

How do allopatric and sympatric speciation differ?

How is an allopolyploid plant formed?

How would you expect the rate of speciation of an allopatric case to compare to the rate of speciation of a sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring?

Ernst Mayr's biological species concept _____

Which statement about the morphological species concept is true?

Which species concept most emphasizes the evolutionary history of species?

The Dobzhansky-Muller model _____

In the Dobzhansky-Muller model, an ancestral population (aabb) splits into two lineages. Different mutations produce different new alleles in each population (Aabb in one population, aaBb in the other). All of the following genotypes would be viable except _____

True statements about speciation

Which of the following is least likely to lead to allopatric isolation?

Geographic isolation _____

Darwin's finches on the Galápagos Islands have diverged primarily via _____ speciation, and exhibit diverse morphologies owing to differences in _____

A butterfly is separating into two different groups—one that lays eggs in the understory of bushes and the other that lays eggs in the tops of bushes. This butterfly species is most likely experiencing _____

What statement about polyploidy in plants is true?

The distinction between pre zygotic and post zygotic isolation is whether _____

Two geographically separated populations of butterflies begin to diverge in the time of day they are active. One group is active earlier in the day, and the other is active later. If this separation were to continue, it would most likely contribute to _____ isolation

Pre zygotic isolating mechanisms can arise from all the following _____

Suppose that the natural ranges of horses and donkeys were to overlap. Which of the following statements best describes what would likely happen to the populations over time?

Two populations that were once isolated come into contact. Which of the following statements about what might happen after contact is true?

Which are most likely to evolve via direct natural selection?

Persistent hybrid zones, like those found in Bombina frogs in Europe, stay narrow due to _____

Where does a mosquito pick up the Plasmodium falciparum parasite?

Why is a mosquito an efficient vector for transmitting Plasmodium falciparum to humans?

Human to human transmission of Plasmodium falciparum is not observed. Why?

What was the origin of all chloroplasts?

Which phrase could be used in a description of secondary endosymbiosis?

What would a biologist look for in order to determine whether a chloroplast in a cell evolved as the result of primary endosymbiosis or secondary endosymbiosis?

Based on information provided in the tutorial, which of the following pairs of organisms has the closest evolutionary relationship?

According to genetic evidence, two main lines of descent emerged from the last universal common ancestor. One of these lines gave rise to the _____

Why were ribosomal RNA molecules (rRNA) so important in showing the relationships between organisms in the three domains?

Consider the following series of strata in undisturbed sedimentary rocks: (1) Richmond is found below Talos and above Pitts; (2) Pitts is found above Somas; (3) Garett is above Talos. Based upon the principles of stratigraphy, where would you be most likely find the oldest fossils?

The ratio of 14C to its stable isotope, (12C), is relatively constant in living organisms and their environment, however, this ratio changes once an organism dies. In a fossil less than 50,000 years old you would expect the ratio of 14C to 12C to be _____

The half-life of 14C, a radioactive element of carbon, is approximately 5,000 years. The ratio of 14C to 12C in a fossil 25,000 years old would be about _____ that of a living organism today

Which would be the best way to determine the absolute age of a collection of sedimentary rocks that are thought to be between 50 and 200 million years old?

Scientists divide geological time into eras and periods. The _____ is most inclusive, and the boundaries are based on _____

Plates of Earth's crust

The increase in the concentration of CO2 in Earth's atmosphere over the past 100 years _____

In the process of _____, the _____ oceanic plate is forced _____ continental plate

Which group of organisms has been most affected by periods of increased glaciation?

What led to the mass extinction at the end of the Cretaceous period?

Which of the following about oxygen is true?

What is the most likely result of increased oxygen concentration on insects?

For every described currently living species of organism, there are about _____ fossil species

The Cambrian explosion took place over _____ years

Coal is the fossilized remains of _____

Mass extinctions occurred at the end of each of the following periods except the _____

In the _____ period, fishes diversified and evolved jaws and club mosses, horsetails, and tree ferns became common. The earliest fossil terrestrial vertebrate and insects date from this period and there was a mass extinction at the end of the period that may have been caused by meteorite impacts

Over geologic time, the concentration of O2 in Earth's atmosphere has increased. During the end of the _____ period, the O2 concentration decreased significantly and resulted in _____

Gondwana is _____

Around 5 million years ago, Earth was in the _____ era, and the _____ period

Where does meiosis take place in the moss life cycle?

Where does fertilization take place in the moss life cycle?

Which set of terms represents a haploid/diploid pair?

In conifers, male gametophytes are called _____ and are formed by the division of microspores

Which statement describes events leading to formation of offspring in the conifer life cycle?

How do the sporophyte and gametophyte generations compare in a conifer?

Double fertilization, which is a hallmark of angiosperm sexual reproduction, results in a _____

Which statement correctly describes the general pattern of the alternation of generations in angiosperms?

Which structure is not a part of the sporophyte generation?

A biologist discovers a seed-bearing plant that has never been classified. Which feature will help him determine whether the plant is a gymnosperm or an angiosperm?

Which of the following clades does not include algae?

Which of the following is a nonseed vascular plant?

Which of the following characteristics is shared by all land plants?

The sporophyte generation _____

Which feature for obtaining water and minerals comes after the nonvascular plants in a phylogeny of the land plants?

he dominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the _____

Which statement regarding vascular plants is true?

Both club mosses and horsetails _____

Which of the following statements regarding the two leaf types (microphylls and megaphylls) is true?

What might be the advantage of seeds with a dormant but viable state?

All seed plants ____

Seed Plants _____

A female conifer cone is made up of modified _____ and a male cone is made up of _____ along a central axis. The megastrobilus cone contains the _____ gametophytes and the microstrobilus, the _____ gametophytes.

Coniferous gymnosperms, such as pines, depend primarily on _____ for pollination, thus the plants produce large quantities of pollen that disperse over large areas during the spring

How do angiosperms differ from gymnosperms?

You examine two flowers of the same species but from two separate plants. One flower has only stamens, while the other flower has only a pistil. You would conclude that the species is _____, and the flowers are _____

To determine how a flowering plant is pollinated, which structure or feature would be most important to examine?

Which of the following correctly pairs a fruit and with a fruit type?

Which of the following statements about seeds is true?

How do monocots and eudicots differ?

Rhizomes stolonifer _____

Which is a correct sequence in the life cycle of Rhizopus stolonifer?

A biologist is working on classifying a structure that she believes to be either a spore or a zygosporangium from a zygosporous fungus. What can the biologist do to make the distinction?

A student comments that a fungus such as Rhizopus stolonifer could go for many generations without ever carrying out meiosis, but not without carrying out mitosis. Evaluate the accuracy of this statement

Fungi possess all of the following traits except _____

Unicellular fungi _____

The body of a multicellular fungus is called a _____. It is made up of _____ that may be septate or ______

Which statement about fungal nutrition is true?

In what way do fungal decomposers contribute to Earth's carbon cycle?

Lichens are _____

Which of the following could be a photosynthetic partner of a lichen?

A mycorrhizal association provides a plant with _____ and _____, and the fungus with _____ and _____

Using a microscope, you are examining a cross section of a plant root in which hyphae surround the plant cells but do not penetrate them. You are most likely looking at _____

Both endophytic fungi and mycorrhizae _____

Reproduction in fungi _____

Sexually-reproducing fungi reproduce without distinct male and female structures because they _____

Which of the following characteristics is unique to the Fungi?

Zygomycota

Glomeromycota

In most sac fungi, the ascospores are _____ and the hyphae are, _____. When the hyphae of two different mating types fuse, a _____ results

Which statement about sexual reproduction in Basidiomycota is true?

Sac fungus yeasts

The basidium of a club fungus is equivalent to the _____ of a sac fungus

You are studying air pollution in New York City by documenting the abundance of lichens and the conditions likely to support them. What result are you likely to find?

Obelia is an example of a cnidarian that reproduces sexually _____

Which is a correct sequence in the life cycle of Obelia?

In which structure does meiosis occur?

A biologist observes a single Obelia polyp on the sea floor not far from two large polyp colonies. What test could help determine whether the lone polyp arose from either or both large colonies as the result of asexual or sexual reproduction?

What are the two main groups of protostomes?

Which feature distinguishes protostomes from deuterostomes?

Which feature is found in the common ancestor of the deuterostomes?

Which pieces of information support the idea that sea stars, acorn worms, and humans can be classified as deuterostomes?

What explains why echinoderms have radial symmetry even though genetic analysis clearly places echinoderms with the deuterostomes that all share a bilaterally symmetrical common ancestor?

A biologist discovers a new animal in a marine environment that has hexagonal radial symmetry. Of the following methods, which will best help him classify this organism with the deuterostomes or with some other group such as the ctenophores, sponges, or placozoans?

What does the term "amphibian" mean?

Which of the following statements about the frog life cycle is true?

In which stage of the frog's life cycle does meiosis occur?

Protostome animals _____

Which statement about the symmetry of organisms is true?

Which statement about coelomate animals is true?

Sponges

Which statement about ctenophores is true?

Which trait only occurs outside the lophotrochozoans?

Parasitic flukes of vertebrates can devote most of their bodies to reproduction because they _____

Annelids

Which statement about mollusks is true?

Ecysozoans

Arthropods are the most numerous animals on Earth. Which trait was least important to their success?

Which statement about crustaceans is true?

Which trait is unique to deuterostome animals?

Of the modern echinoderms _____

Which statement about the notochord is true?

Which of the following best distinguishes amphibians and amniotes?

In the not-too-distant past, the theory that birds were reptiles was met with skepticism. What type(s) of evidence support this theory being true?

Marsupials differ from eutherians in that _____

Place the following groups of eutherians in order of decreasing species richness. (1) Bats (2) Elephants (3) Primates (4) Rodents (5) Shrews and moles

Homo neanderthalensis _____

Which of the following statements about air is correct?

Precipitation tends to be _____ on the _____ side of a mountain because water vapor _____ as it rises there.

The Cascade Mountains bisect the state of Washington into western and eastern portions. The western portion is bounded on its western border by the Pacific Ocean. The eastern portion is bounded on its eastern border by the state of Idaho. What might you predict about these two portions based on the information presented in the tutorial?

Which of the following biomes has the greatest annual rainfall?

Which of the following factors are important in determining the type of biome that characterizes a particular region?

Which of the following sets of biomes is placed in order from lowest to highest average annual temperature?

Which of the following sets of biomes is placed in order from most to least biologically diverse?

Which of the following aquatic biomes is known for its high biological diversity?

Which of the following sets of factors is important in distinguishing aquatic biomes?

Which of the following sequences places the aquatic biomes in order from lowest to highest salinity?

Which of the following pairs of aquatic biomes shares the most similarities?

An ecological system encompasses _____

All of the field mice, grasshoppers, deer, hawks, and plants in a particular valley in Ohio constitute a _____

The gut microbial community will be most similar between _____

Humans often experience digestive problems after taking a course of antibiotics to treat a bacterial infection, because the antibiotics destroy the body's "normal" microbes. These microbes do all of the following except _____

How are climate and weather related to each other?

The beaches with the strongest sunlight in December can be found in _____

_____ energy drives global air circulation patterns

Global oceanic circulation is driven by all of the following except _____

Suppose that scientists discover a planet very similar to Earth. What information will be important in determining the growing seasons of the different regions on this new planet?

Rain tends to be much more common in mountains than in the adjacent lowlands because _____

Why does the leeward side of a mountain typically remain dry?

Different types of tropical biomes are determined primarily by the _____ in that zone

The tundra biome is found _____

In aquatic biomes you would not expect to find photosynthetic organisms in the _____ zone

A colleague brings you a sample containing an organism from an unknown location. It survives being subjected to dry conditions, continuous wave action, and full submersion in salt water but not in fresh water. This organism most likely comes from an _____

The common periwinkle, Littorina littorea, is a small marine gastropod. Based on the name, it is most likely found in the _____ zone

Wallace's line is based on what kind of barrier to dispersal?

Southern beeches, (genus Nothofagus), are found in South America, New Zealand, and Australia, as well as on certain islands of the southern Pacific Ocean. The most likely explanation for this widespread distribution is _____

Which statement about the effect of human activities on ecological systems is true?

When an ecologist designs a model to test a hypothesis about fires in a tropical savanna, knowledge about that ecosystem's _____ is vital

How do changing values for r affect the growth rate of a population?

What is meant by the term "doubling time" and how did changing values for N0 affect the doubling time of a population?

The equations used in the tutorial apply to populations over short time intervals. Why can they not be applied to populations over very long time periods?

How long will it take a population of 550 moose to double if 25 offspring are born and 14 moose die on average per year?

What is carrying capacity?

If the size of a population is greater than the carrying capacity (K), what will happen to the population?

According to the results of the simulation, how does distance affect the probability of extinction of subpopulations within a metapopulation, assuming that dispersal is active within the range of distances involved?

According to the results of the simulation, which subpopulations within a metapopulation are most likely to go extinct?

A biologist is studying a metapopulation of a turtle species. He counts the number of eggs laid by this species in each subpopulation within the metapopulation. The subpopulations range in size from very large to very small. The following are different possible outcomes of this study. Which outcome would suggest that the subpopulations are open systems rather than closed systems?

For which population would density best be measured per unit of volume, instead of per unit of area?

You know that the population density of rabbits in an area is 80 individuals per square kilometer. The birth rate is 0.04 per week, and the death rate is 0.03 per week. From this information, population size would be calculated by _____

In a population of 400 deer, the per capita birth rate is 0.16 per year and the per capita death rate is 0.22 per year. In the following year, you would expect a(n) _____ of _____ deer in this population

There are 300 individuals in a population at time x. During the next month, 60 individuals are born and 30 die. What is the per capita growth rate per month?

If b, the per capita birth rate, is higher than d, the per capita death rate, which of the following is most likely to occur?

The survivorship of five-year-old foxes is 0.34. The fecundity of these foxes is 0.54. What is the mortality of five-year old foxes?

You are experimenting with sunflower photosynthetic rates. You expose different plants to different light intensities, ranging from no light to full sun. What type of relationship would you expect to see between increasing light intensity and rate of photosynthesis?

The principle of _____ states that once an organism has acquired a unit of some resource, that bit of resource cannot be used for multiple functions at once

Which population cannot survive indefinitely?

A hypothetical population not constrained by environmental limits would experience _____ growth

The number of individuals of any particular species that can be supported by a particular environment is known as _____

An exponentially growing population of skunks has a doubling time of 10 years. In 2013 it had a population of 3,000. If it continues to grow at this rate, the population size will be _____ in the year 2033

At carrying capacity, r is _____

The current human population per capita growth rate is _____

The set of subpopulations in an area make up a _____

The difference between the BD growth model and the BIDE model is the inclusion of _____ in the BIDE model

By necessity, in the BD model (not the BIDE model), populations are considered to be _____

Fishermen prefer to catch _____ rockfish, and this has led to a(n) _____ in the size of rockfish

The most effective way to reduce the number of ticks that cause Lyme disease in an area would be to _____ the number of _____

In Janzen's experiment, which of the following conditions describes his control group?

In Janzen's experiment, which of the following actions was performed on the experimental group?

Suppose that Janzen had found no difference in survival rates of acacia trees in his control and experimental groups. Which of the following conclusions would he have drawn?

If two organisms use the same resources and those resources are insufficient to supply their combined needs, the organisms' interactions constitute _____

Predation is the type of interaction in which _____

Mutualism is the type of interaction in which ____

Commensalism is the type of interaction in which _____

Guppies (fish) swimming in a stream disrupt the growth of algae without any effect on the fish. This relationship can best be described as _____

If you set up an experiment pairing different species of Paramecium together, under what circumstance would one species be least likely to go extinct?

A population of plants has a per capita growth rate of -0.12 per year. The presence of a mutualistic aphid increases this rate by 0.002 per aphid per square meter. Keeping the per capita growth rate of the plant above zero requires a _____ density of aphids of _____ per m2

At low densities and in the absence of any other beetle species, the population of a strain of the flour beetle Tribolium castaneum grows at a per capita rate of 0.3 per week. In controlled lab conditions, the per capita growth rate is reduced by 0.015 for every 100 individuals. The addition of a related beetle, Tribolium freemani, further reduces the per capita growth rate of T. castaneum by 0.02 for every 100 T. freemani individuals. If there are 800 T. castaneum and 500 T. freemani individuals, what is the per capita growth rate of the T. castaneum population?

Which factor is most likely to promote the coexistence of competing species via rarity advantage?

In a mythical world, Kelters eat Fygons and Joosts. Joosts are autotrophs, while Fygons eat autotrophs. Based on this information you would conclude that Kelters are _____

Which statement about primary consumers is true?

The Muir effect _____

Species introduced to regions outside their original range that then spread widely and become abundant at a cost to the native species of the region are known as _____ species

Defensive strategies are most likely to evolve in ______

A plant species produces a chemical that is toxic to herbivores. Over time, herbivores that can detoxify the chemical increase in frequency. A mutation in the plant produces a new, different toxic chemical that the herbivores cannot detoxify. This is an example of _____

Which relationship is most likely to lead to resource partitioning?

Trading of goods and/or services between individuals of different species _____

Which statement about mutualisms is false?

At Glacier Bay, Alaska, the gravel deposits left behind by a retreating glacier were colonized first by which of the following organisms?

At Glacier Bay, Alaska, why were Dryas (an herbaceous plant) and alder trees among the first plants to appear during the ecological succession of gravel deposits left behind by a retreating glacier?

After reading about the changes at Glacier Bay, a student remarks that the pattern and interactions of organisms present at each stage in succession creates the conditions that lead to the pattern present at the next stage. A second student remarks that the soil produced at each stage of succession helps define the pattern present at the next stage. Evaluate these two statements

According to results from the simulation in the tutorial, which island characteristics are associated with the highest species richness?

Which statement is supported by the MacArthur-Wilson model simulation?

A tsunami strikes a large peninsula, destroying the bird populations living there. The tsunami also fragments the peninsula into three islands of similar size but different distances from the mainland. What would the MacArthur-Wilson model predict about bird populations on these islands in the future?

As a forest becomes fragmented into smaller and smaller patches, the effects of fragmentation on these patches _____

The microclimate at the edge of a forest fragment differs from that inside the forest. Which of the following is generally true of the edges compared to the interior of the forest?

Ideally, what should a land use committee do as it maps out areas of undeveloped land to convert to human housing?

A group of species that coexist and interact with one another in a defined geographic area is a _____

What is the difference between species composition of a community and community structure?

An ecologist measures off a transect running through a park and identifies plants at regular intervals. The transect passes through various types of soils. As she moves through the transect she observes that some plants thin out as new ones appear, but that this change is gradual. This pattern is called _____

Which process does not contribute to species composition changes over short periods of time?

A researcher is comparing the heights of the tallest plants found in communities where pollinators are abundant to those in communities where pollinators are scarce. The researcher is testing whether there is a relationship between _____ and pollinators

In 2011, a tornado tore through Springfield, Massachusetts, destroying a large proportion of the trees in the area. This event is an example of _____, and the subsequent growth of new trees is an example of _____

The GPP of a community is 40 units per day on average, while the NPP of the community is 15 units per day. How many units are used for cellular respiration and other catabolic processes of the plants?

GPP and NPP are most closely associated with _____

The NPP of a community is 150 units per month and the GPP is 240 units per month. If the ecological efficiency of herbivores is 1/6, how many units of plant biomass are converted into biomass of herbivores?

You are a scientist designing an experiment to investigate NPP over large expanses of Earth's surface. Which of the following could be measured by satellite to correlate with NPP?

Productivity in a community _____ with increasing species number and _____ with an increase in the number of functional groups

Which community has the highest species diversity?

There are five species of beetles of roughly equal abundance in a community. A storm substantially reduces the population of one species. This would result in a decrease in species _____ and no change in species _____

Species richness is highest in the _____

Islands that are _____ and _____ the mainland tend to have the most species

The mammalian fauna of an island is behaving in accordance with the MacArthur and Wilson theory of island biogeography. If the food supply on the island is permanently reduced, you would expect the number of mammalian species to _____, because _____ will _____

An island is at equilibrium in terms of species richness when the _____

Earthworm activity adds nutrients and oxygen to the soil and makes it more homogenous. Thus, this soil has more value for agriculture. Which term best describes the agricultural value of earthworms?

Based on the theory of island biogeography, fragmentation should have the least effect when _____

Wolves are crucial for maintaining healthy aspen forests because of their effects on _____

Which of the following is the major compartment for carbon in Earth's system?

How are humans influencing the carbon cycle?

By what process does nitrogen enter the living components of ecosystems?

How are humans influencing the nitrogen cycle?

Which pathway represents the shortest path that a nitrogen atom in atmospheric nitrogen, N2, could travel and end up in a protein in a human?

A student remarks that it is a good thing that humans discovered how to use industrial processes to fix nitrogen because this ensures that the nitrogen cycle can remain intact if nitrogen-fixing bacteria ever go extinct. Evaluate the accuracy of this statement.